c***@hush.ai
2018-04-30 16:59:00 UTC
In England/Great Britain/Ukogbani, it is high treason to "violate" King´s wife, or wife or eldest son and heir of King, or King´s eldest daughter unmarried.
England has had Queens Regnant since 1553. Yet it does not seem that any statute has ever made it treason to forcibly violate the body of a Queen Regnant.
Now, Sweden has their own laws of treason.
Several witnesses have observed Jean-Claude Arnault "violate" Princess Victoria of Sweden, in mid-2000-s. Victoria was at the time King´s eldest daughter unmarried, as well as his heiress.
The "violation" in question is alleged to have consisted of the said Jean-Claude Arnault having used his hand to touch Her Royal Highness´ buttocks, over her clothes, without her leave.
Does this kind of conduct, if proven against Queen Consort, Princess of Wales or eldest daughter unmarried of English sovereign, qualify as "violation" in the sense of Treason Act?
Besides high treason, are there any applicable laws of Sweden against lese majeste available against the said malefactor?
England has had Queens Regnant since 1553. Yet it does not seem that any statute has ever made it treason to forcibly violate the body of a Queen Regnant.
Now, Sweden has their own laws of treason.
Several witnesses have observed Jean-Claude Arnault "violate" Princess Victoria of Sweden, in mid-2000-s. Victoria was at the time King´s eldest daughter unmarried, as well as his heiress.
The "violation" in question is alleged to have consisted of the said Jean-Claude Arnault having used his hand to touch Her Royal Highness´ buttocks, over her clothes, without her leave.
Does this kind of conduct, if proven against Queen Consort, Princess of Wales or eldest daughter unmarried of English sovereign, qualify as "violation" in the sense of Treason Act?
Besides high treason, are there any applicable laws of Sweden against lese majeste available against the said malefactor?